Tuesday, July 29, 2008

Re: Claim of housing loan interest--Property in Mom's name


Hi Purnima,


The sine qua non of deduction of interest u/s 24 as well as the deduction of principal u/s 80C is that the income in respect of which the deduction is sought to be claimed must be assessable under the head "Income from House Property"--- in the hands of the assessee and not just anyone. A son doesn't become liable to be taxed for the house property owned by his mother. As such your client won't be able to claim deduction of interest u/s 24(b). Even if the property had been owned jointly, your client would've been able to claim proportionate deduction. But even now if the property gets re-registered in the son's name—after being duly mutated in the land revenue records—the son will be able to claim the housing loan interest. But that might involve coughing up stamp duty at the sub-registrar' s office. Some states have exempted payment of stamp duty in case of family transfers of immovable properties. Verify it from the Sub-registrar' s office. Thanks,CA Sanjeev Bedi--- In http://us.mc508.mail.yahoo.com/mc/compose?to=ICAI_CIRC_MEERUT_CA%40yahoogroups.com, Purnima Jolly wrote:>Hi Friends, I have a query related to claim of housing loan interest. One of my client bought a house in the name of his mother by availing loan from bank. Can he deduct the payment of interset on housing loan from his salary income. Thanks and regards Purnima

Friday, July 25, 2008

Disallowance of Bonus u/s 43B

From: Sanjeev Bedi Subject: {amresh's-CA's} Re: Disallowance u/s 43B--Performance BonusTo: ICAI_CIRC_MEERUT_CA@yahoogroups.comDate: Friday, July 25, 2008, 12:52 AM
Hi Anand,You seem to be right. The great idea behind introduction of Section 43B into the Act was to create a disincentive for the assessees who under the guise of mercantile system of accounting simply made book entries without bothering to dispense cash to the employees/governmen t authorities for long periods of time. This is what the Objects and Reasons (paras 59 and 60) of Finance Act 1983 which brought in Section 43B states (capitalization mine): [Several cases have come to notice where taxpayers do not discharge their STATUTORY LIABILITY such as in respect of excise duty, employer's contribution to provident fund, Employees' State Insurance Scheme, etc., for long periods of time, extending sometimes to several years. For the purpose of their income-tax assessments, they claim the liability as deduction on the ground that they maintain accounts on mercantile or accrual basis. On the other hand they dispute the liability and do not discharge the same. For some reason or the other undisputed liabilities also are not paid. To curb this practice, it is proposed to provide that deduction for any sum payable by the assessee by way of tax or duty under any law for the lime being in force (irrespective of whether such tax or duty is disputed or not) or any sum payable by the assessee as an employer by way of contribution to any provident FUND or superannuation FUND or gratuity FUND or any other FUND for the welfare of employees shall be allowed only in computing the income of that previous year in which such sum is actually paid by him]The emphasis clearly is on statutory liability and not just any other contractual liability arising as a result of mutual agreement between the employer and the employee. The Kolkatta High Court in the case you cited--Exide Industries Ltd. v. Union of India [2007] 164 Taxman 9—did strike down clause (f) of Section 43B as unconstitutional and unconscionable. The court ruled that leave encashment provision was allowable merely on accrual basis. Parliament had injected clause (f) relating to LWW in Section 43B in the FA 2001 to scuttle the Apex Court decision in of Bharat Earth Movers v. CIT [2000] 245 ITR 428 (SC). The Supreme Court had allowed in that case the leave encashment expense on the basis of a mere provision. On the government's move to disregard the judge-made law in Bharat Movers case by bringing in clause (f) in Section 43B, the High court had this to say:[We do not for a single moment observe that the Legislature was not entitled to bring such amendment. They were within their power to bring such amendment. However they must disclose reasons which would be consistent with the provisions of the Constitution and the laws of the land and not for the sole object of nullifying the Apex Court decision]The High Court struck down clause (f) as unconstitutional, arbitrary and de hors the SC decision in Bharat Earth Movers. Based on the above discussion, in my view, performance- linked bonus—and not the one that the employer is statutorily required to pay to the employees in pursuance of the Payment of Bonus Act—can be claimed on the basis of an entry in the books of account, notwithstanding that it hasn't been disbursed before the filing of return of income.To avoid conflict you might consider changing the nomenclature of this payment—look up synonyms of Bonus in the OED!
Thanks,

CA Sanjeev Bedi

--- In ICAI_CIRC_MEERUT_ CA@yahoogroups. com, anand mishra wrote:>> Dear friends,> > This is regarding disalloances of Bonus under section 43B of IT Act, I am of opinion that section 43B is restricted up to payment of statutory Bonus covered under payment of Bonus Act. payment of bonus in the nature of ex-gratia / performance bonus should not be covered under this section and same may be allowed on accrual basis.> > Specially after decision of Kolkata high court in exide industries case in case of leave encashment, it is clear that only statutory bonus will be covered under 43B , exgratia or performance bonus will be allowed on acrrual basis. > > If you have any other opinion or any case law in support of this, please share with me.> > Regards,> > Anand Mishra

FBT on car insurance




Hi Rahul,

Mr J P Aggarwal, the doyen of the group, has answered your query quite exhaustively. Indeed if we go by the CBDT circular, it's difficult to contend that car insurance is not "car running and maintenance" as envisaged u/s 115WB(2)(H). If your car isn't insured in respect of third-party indemnification, you can be challaned by traffic cops. So at least the third-party insurance is a necessary expense to run the car. But most of us go in for the comprehensive insurance cover these days, which covers the risk of damages to our car as well. May be we can make a case for not shelling out FBT on the component of insurance premium other than that attributable to third-party insurance at least, since we have an option not to take it!If you look up the Bare Act, Section 115WB(2)(H) says this:[(H) repair, running (including fuel), maintenance of motor cars and the amount of depreciation thereon]Notice the words within brackets "including fuel"? Pray, how on earth can you run a car without fuel (LPG/CNG is also a variant of fuel)? Expenditure on fuel is the prime expenditure you incur to get a car running. So where was the need to insert these words? This shows the lawmakers don't want to give a restrictive meaning to "running and maintenance" . This is also evident from even driver's salary and interest on car loan being subjected to FBT on the grounds that these constitute car running expenses!Car Insurance pe FBT lagega, mere vichar mein.Thanks,CA Sanjeev Bedi--- In http://us.mc508.mail.yahoo.com/mc/compose?to=ICAI_CIRC_MEERUT_CA%40yahoogroups.com, "CA J P Agarwal" wrote:>> Dear Friends,> > The CBDT circular on FBT (probably dated 28.7.05) covered salary paid to driver as well as garage rent to be included as motor car repair and maintenance for FBT, so as per CBDT insurance would also be covered (I don't remember if insurance was also specifically mentioned) on the reasoning of proximate purpose.> > Thus, if the matter is petty go by the CBDT but if you want to contest and you client is willing than you should contest it. Insurance is treated as different from repairs u/s 31 of IT Act and cannot be treated as repair or maintenance.> > Repairs and insurance of machinery, plant and furniture.> > 1531. 16In respect of repairs and insurance of machinery, plant or furniture used for the purposes of the business or profession, the following deductions shall be allowed-> > (i) the amount paid on account of current repairs thereto ;> > (ii) the amount of any premium paid in respect of insurance against risk of damage or destruction thereof.> > 18[Explanation. -For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that the amount paid on account of current repairs shall not include any expenditure in the nature of capital expenditure. ]> > > Now coming to wild theory of proximate purpose of CBDT, as described in CBDT circular , I don't think the proximate purpose of any business expenditure is to run the motor car but is to run the business and make profits. Now as per my wild theory, Expenses incurred for making profit is not covered by FBT so none of the expense would be covered by FBT.> > I would seek expert views.> > CA J P Agarwal> J P Associates> Jhansi> ----- Original Message ----- > From: Pramod Vaya > To: http://us.mc508.mail.yahoo.com/mc/compose?to=ICAI_CIRC_MEERUT_CA%40yahoogroups.com > Sent: Thursday, July 24, 2008 2:46 PM> Subject: Re: {amresh's-CA' s} FBT on car insurance> > > Dear Mr Rahul,> > Althought, it is not strictly falling in the definition of repairs and maintenance but still the insurance expenditure would fall under the category of maintenance of the vehicle. Therefore, it will be subject to FBT.> > I would find out in case, any case law support on this.> > Thanks> Pramod Kumar> > > On Wed, 23 Jul 2008 rahulblyca wrote :> >Dear Sir> >> >Whether FBT is payable on car insurance? As per my view car insurance> >is not a part of repair & maint.> >> >Pls. advice. If there is any case law, notification etc. pls. let me> >know.> >> >Regards> >> >CA Rahul Agarwal> >

Thursday, July 24, 2008

Taxability of Notice Pay




Hi Dhruv,


In my opinion, only the net salary—remaining after the deduction of notice pay—would be taxable in the hands of the employee. Had it been the other way around i.e. the employee had been fired instead of resigning on his own, the employer would have paid him a month's (or whatever the period of notice) salary. That amount would've been taxable in his hands, wouldn't it? Now that the employee has foregone a month's salary for leaving all of a sudden, shouldn't he be entitled to have that amount knocked off his gross salary? But there's no scope of any deduction from salary---the list of items that can be deducted out of salary as mentioned in Section 16 is exhaustive, the purists might argue. My contention is: the employee was made to forego that salary as part of the terms of employment he had with the employer. I don't think it's an application of income, like say a manager working in a charitable organization foregoing his salary. The manager would still be liable to get taxed on that amount because he's done it voluntarily. But the salaried guy who decides to say goodbye to his employer after finding greener pastures elsewhere isn't foregoing his pay voluntarily—the terms of the employment leave him no choice but to part with a certain period's salary. He gets taxed for the salary he gets in pursuance of the terms of the employment. So how can we tax him for the salary he has had to give up in pursuance of the terms of employment?We do have a case law on this. The facts aren't exactly the same, but the principles of salary taxation have been discussed beautifully. In the case of CIT v. Bachubhai Nagindas Shah [1976] 104 ITR 551 (Guj.), the assessee was appointed as a director of the company on a remuneration of Rs. 400 per month. As the company incurred heavy losses, the board of directors of the company resolved that the directors should waive their rights of remuneration in the previous year. Consequent to this resolution the assessee waived his right of remuneration of the sum of Rs. 4,800, which had become due to him in the relevant previous year for the assessment year 1963-64. The ITO assessed the remuneration of Rs. 4,800 as part of the income of the assessee in spite of the waiver of remuneration by the directors.The matter came up before the Gujarat High Court. The court ruled that income tax is a levy on income. Though the Act takes into account two points of time at which the liability to tax is attracted, viz., the accrual of the income or its receipt, the substance of the matter is the income. If income does not result at all, there cannot be a tax, even though in book-keeping, an entry is made about a `hypothetical income', which does not materialise. Where income has, in fact, been received and is subsequently given up in such circumstances that it remains the income of the recipient, even though given up, tax may be payable. Where, however, the income can be said to have not resulted at all, there is obviously neither accrual nor receipt of income, even though an entry to that effect might, in certain circumstances, have been made in the books of account. The Court suggested that appropriate relief must be afforded in the year of waiver out of deduction from salary income even though the Act does not contain any specific provision in this regard.The court citing the SC decision in the case of CIT v. Shoorji Vallabhdas & Co. [1962] 46 ITR 144 (SC) and the Bombay HC decision in H.M. Kashiparekh & Co. Ltd. v. CIT [1960] 39 ITR 706 (Bom.) went on to elaborate the concept of Salary and its taxation in the following words:[Before we part with this case we may point out that the Legislature has provided that salary becomes taxable when it becomes due, that is, on the accrual basis and whether you call it `accrual basis' or to use the language of the relevant section of the Income-tax Act, 1961, say `when the amount of salary becomes due', the principle is the same. It is because of these special provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961, section 15, that we have come to the conclusion in the instant case that the assessee is liable to pay tax on the amount of salary that became due to him even though subsequently he waived his right to receive the remuneration. However, it appears to us that it is the very basis of the principle of a particular amount being considered as income on the basis of accrual that if at any subsequent point of time it is found that that amount is not deemed to have been received on the basis of accrual or has not in fact been received and the right to receive that amount has been given up because of circumstances of the particular case, then in the year in which the right to receive the money has been waived or given up or agreed to be given up is the period during which an appropriate relief must be given by way of deduction to the assessee concerned because if that were not to be done, the very basic principle of accrual is violated. That principle is that though not received on the basis of accrual, it is due to be received and the tax is payable and has to be paid on that basis. If subsequently it becomes clear that that amount is not to be received though accrued earlier and is not going to be received at all, it is in the fitness of things that corresponding deduction for the amount waived or written off should be given to the assessee in the year of account in which such amount is written off or waived or debited. It is on this basis that in the system of mercantile account keeping, bad debts are written off and deductions are allowed on the basis of bad debts being written off in the year in which the debt is written off by the assessee concerned. It is true that so far as `salaries' are concerned, the income chargeable under the head `Salaries' shall be computed after making the deductions set out in section 16 and the deduction of the type that we are pointing out is not contemplated by the actual words of section 16. But what we are pointing out goes to the very root of the notion of `income' and before anything can be considered `income', this principle which follows from the basic approach of `income accrued' being considered on the same footing as income received must be accepted. It is for the authorities concerned to consider whether in the year in which the assessee agreed to waive his right to receive the amount of Rs. 4,800, he would be entitled to the deduction of this amount on the ground that that which had accrued was in fact not received by him. We are conscious that we cannot issue any directions to the income-tax authorities in this connection but we thought it our duty to explain the legal position as we see it."]In the light of the above discussion, in my view, only net salary (after adjustment of notice pay) need be reported in Form 16. An appropriate footnote may be appended explaining the adjustment. These days the new employer also undertakes to bear the loss arising to the employee on account of his suddenly leaving the previous employer. This reimbursement of notice pay by the new employer is taxable under the head Salary as Profits in lieu of salary u/s 17(3)(iii)(A). So even from a commonsensical point of view, the poor Naukriwala can't be made to pay tax on the same amount twice. Thanks,CA Sanjeev Bedi--- In http://us.mc508.mail.yahoo.com/mc/compose?to=ICAI_CIRC_MEERUT_CA%40yahoogroups.com, "Dhruv Arora" wrote:>> Dear Members> > As a usual practice, most companies require their employees to inform them> in advance (a prescribed period), in case they want to leave the job.> It is mandatory for the employee to serve such prescribed period, before he> or she can be relieved.> If the employee fails to serve the notice period he or she is liable to> monetary penalty.> > Now, my question is that can employee claim such penalty against the Salary> Income?> Form No. 16 issued by the company, states the Gross Salary only.> However, the full an final settlement sheet, issued by the company on his> letterhead, mentions such deduction.> > Kindly advise, it would be of great help if a supportive provision/case law> can be provided with.> > Regards> CA Dhruv Arora> Meerut

Provision for Gratuity--Nine is the Number




Hi Lalita,


A company gets covered under the Payment of Gratuity Act for all time to come the moment the number of employees on its rolls crosses 9. Do check that your company has never had a double-digit staff strength ever since its inception. If nine is the maximum number that your company has ever employed, then there's no question of making a provision for gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972 read with Section 2(m) of the Factories Act 1948.I think the auditors suspect that since you're just one employee shy of getting hit by the Gratuity Act, it's just a matter of time before a liability to pay gratuity under that Act arises. But as far as I understand, in determining the liability for gratuity, once you're covered, you don't take into account the period served by the employees prior to the date when the company got covered under the Act. The 5-year count down will start from the day of coverage. Also may be the auditors think the company may voluntarily pay up gratuity to a long-serving employee. Accrual basis accounting will demand that a provision be created from year to year in that event. What you should do is give an undertaking to the auditors—in the Management Representation Letter to be issued in pursuance of AAS 11---that the company has never been covered by the Gratuity Act as it didn't have the required number of employees on its rolls; also that it does not intend to make a voluntary gratuitous payment to any employee at present or in future that would necessitate a provision in the books of accounts. This ought to pacify them auditors!Thanks,CA Sanjeev Bedi--- In http://us.mc508.mail.yahoo.com/mc/compose?to=ICAI_CIRC_MEERUT_CA%40yahoogroups.com, lalita arora wrote:>> Hi,>  > If the Gratuity Act is not applicable to the company, Is it still require to provide "Provision for Gratuity" in its books of accounts?>  > Actually our company has only 9 employees. So Gratuity Act is not applicable to our company. But our auditors want to provide for gratuity in the books of accounts assuming that the number of employees might increase in the next year.>  >  > Pls send ur replies with reference to some case laws/ section/ circular/ notification to support your reply.>  >  > > Regards,> CA Lalita Arora

Wednesday, July 16, 2008

Arrears of Freedom Fighter Pension-Relief u/s 89





Hi Balu,



As far as I know not all sorts of pensions received by freedom fighters are exempt. Only the amount received consequent to a gallantry award being conferred on someone or an amount one gets in pursuance of a scheme approved by the Central government u/s 10(17)(ii) will be exempt in the hands of the recipient. The government had notified a scheme called the Swatantrata Sainik Samman (Honour to Freedom Fighters) Pension Scheme, 1980 in exercise of the powers conferred on it u/s 10(17)(ii). This scheme was originally floated on 15th August 1972 to mark the 25th anniversary of the Indian independence. In 1980 this scheme was made more liberal with a view to cover more people. Only pensions drawn by freedom fighters under this scheme are exempt. All other pensions in my opinion in the absence of any specific exemption notification would be brought to tax under the head "Income from other sources" u/s 56. Your point about the absence of employer-employee relationship is valid. But that doesn't automatically lead to the conclusion that the income isn't taxable at all. Section 56 is a default section. If the income doesn't fit into any of the four heads and isn't exempt, it'd be taxable u/s 56. The assessee won't be entitled to deduction u/s 57(iia) either since this isn't a family pension—-he himself is drawing it. The relief u/s 89 too it seems would elude the assessee.Thanks,CA Sanjeev Bedi--- In ICAI_CIRC_MEERUT_ CA@yahoogroups. com, "balunand" wrote:>> Is there an employer-employee relationship here? In my opinion you > should claim the entire amount as exempt.> > Regards> Balu> www.balunand. com> > > > --- In ICAI_CIRC_MEERUT_ CA@yahoogroups. com, "Gaurav" > wrote:> >> > Hi everybody,> > > > My Grandfather received arrears of freedom fighter and political > > pension during last year. Whether I can claim relief u/s 89 for > the > > arrear. If I can, whether their is any case law on this. Actually > our > > professional person is denying that we can't take relief. We are > > currently showing pension receipt under head 'Income from Salary"> > > > Please reply....> > > > Thanks in advance> > > > Gaurav Pancholia> > > > (pancholia.gaurav @ gmail.com)

Monday, July 14, 2008

Exemption u/s 54--Investment in Two houses


Hi Brijesh,
Yes, there shouldn't be a problem in claiming exemption u/s 54 in such a case. The words used in Section 54 are "a residential house". When we look at Section 54 vis-à-vis Section 54F, the condition of not owning more than one house on the date of transfer laid down in Section 54F stands out and sets it apart from Section 54, which contains no such stipulation. So profits from sale of two properties, provided they were both used for residence, can be invested to claim exemption u/s 54. Now let's look at the investment aspect. Can we invest in more than one house and claim exemption u/s 54? Black's Law Dictionary defines the indefinite article "a" appearing in legal texts as not necessarily relating to a singular item and that it is often used in the sense of `any' and is then applied to more than one individual object. The Strout's Judicial Dictionary too echoes similar views---the word `a', it says, is most frequently the equivalent of the word `any'. And Section 13(2) of our desi General Clauses Act says that singular includes the plural.There are plenty case laws in our favour too. In the case of Rattanlal Murarka [BCAJ 2003, IT Appeal No. 4485/(Mum.)/ 99], it was held that there is no bar imposed under section 54(1) on the assessee claiming exemption in respect of reinvestment of the capital gain in more than one house, provided other conditions of the section are satisfied. In this case the assessee had bought up two houses—-one in Thane and the other in Pune. The exemption was allowed in respect of the total investment made in two houses. Another case law in point is D. Anand Basappa v. ITO [2004] 91 ITD 53 (Bang.).In some cases though the courts have ruled that investment in only one house is eligible for exemption u/s 54. But enlightened opinion is more inclined towards not interpreting the meaning of article "a" appearing in Section 54 as to restrict it to a singular object only. This is also in keeping with the intention behind the introduction of Section 54--to incentivise housing in the country. Thanks,CA Sanjeev Bedi--- In ICAI_CIRC_MEERUT_ CA@yahoogroups. com, "gujratibrijesh" wrote:>> If any person sold two residential house property (long term capital > gain was arises ) and the sale consideration was invested in two > redidential house property can he claim exemption U/s 54 if any case > decided by court in this regard please send detail > > CA Brijesh Kr Gujrati> Varanasi>